simplymariex simplymariex
  • 02-04-2018
  • Mathematics
contestada

Is it true that since sin2x + cos2x = 1, then sin(x) + cos(x) = 1? Explain your answer.

Respuesta :

jimthompson5910 jimthompson5910
  • 02-04-2018
No it is not true because plugging in something like x = pi/4 radians (equivalent to 45 degrees) leads to the left side not being equal to 1. The left side will simplify to sqrt(2). So the equation is not true when x = pi/4 radians. There are infinitely other counter examples to use; however, x = 0 or x = pi/2 radians will actually be bad values to pick so avoid those.


Answer Link

Otras preguntas

What figure has one endpoint and continues forever in one direction?
The terrestrial planets ranked in order of decreasing atmospheric density are
Name two layers below earth's surface in which convection takes place
The best way to increase our supply of energy is to use less energy. [true or false]
When was under god added to the pledge of allegiance?
Why is buying stocks based on speculation a risk?
please help asap! If ∠A ≅ ∠D and ∠C ≅ ∠F, which additional statement does NOT allow you to conclude that ΔABC ≅ ΔDEF ? A) BC ≅ EF B) ∠B ≅ ∠E D) AC ≅ DF
What year do i graduate high school if im in 8th grade?
A woman who gave birth to a second child 3 weeks ago is depressed and having difficulty caring for her children. at the end of the day both of the children are
Natalia is washing her hands and adjusts the faucet handle until the water feels just slightly hotter than it did before. natalia's adjustment until she feels a